An example of rationalizing is

An example of rationalizing is



a. restricting food intake by rationing food.
b. coping with stress using biofeedback techniques.
c. identifying emotional triggers for eating.
d. using a busy schedule to justify poor food choices.




Answer: D

Alcohol abuse is associated with poor nutritional status because

Alcohol abuse is associated with poor nutritional status because



a. alcohol intake increases basal metabolic rate.
b. alcoholic beverages displace healthful foods from the diet.
c. alcohol increases the desire for foods high in fat and sugar.
d. alcoholics often eat in bars that serve a limited number of foods.



Answer: B

The Emergency Food Assistance Program supplements the dietary intake of low-income households by distributing basic commodities and

The Emergency Food Assistance Program supplements the dietary intake of low-income households by distributing basic commodities and




a. providing education on preparation of low-cost foods.
b. reducing government-held surplus dairy commodities.
c. distributing excess commodities to developing nations.
d. providing specific nutrient-dense foods for young children and older adults.



Answer: B

The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) provides

The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) provides



a. emergency food supplies for people living below the poverty level.
b. a list of foods that meet specific nutrient and health requirements.
c. coupons toward the purchase of foods for people with low income.
d. nutrition supplements for at risk individuals and families.



Answer: C

The Child and Adult Care Food Program helps provide food for

The Child and Adult Care Food Program helps provide food for



a. school-age children and institutionalized older adults.
b. children and adults with physical and mental disabilities while they attend daycare facilities.
c. low-income families caring for preschool-age children and dependent elderly family members.
d. children up to age 12, senior citizens, and certain handicapped people who participate in daycare programs.




Answer: D

The Nutrition Screening Initiative is intended to help

The Nutrition Screening Initiative is intended to help



a. identify adults older than 65 who are at nutritional risk.
b. identify individuals of all ages who are at nutritional risk.
c. determine the level of nutritional risk in older adults in the nation.
d. implement strategies to prevent nutritional risk in adults more than 65 years old.




Answer: A

A reason that dehydration may be a problem in older adults is that

A reason that dehydration may be a problem in older adults is that



a. older adults sweat more in hot weather.
b. the lungs evaporate more water during respiration.
c. the ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine decreases.
d. water absorption from the gastrointestinal tract decreases.




Answer: C

A man may be at increased risk for prostate cancer if he

A man may be at increased risk for prostate cancer if he



a. eats large portions of red meat several times per week.
b. eats eggs for breakfast most mornings.
c. drinks two or more alcoholic beverages daily.
d. drinks two or more glasses of milk daily.



Answer: A

One way a 50-year-old individual can help maintain their lean body mass and minimize increases in body fat is to

One way a 50-year-old individual can help maintain their lean body mass and minimize increases in body fat is to



a. engage in regular exercise, including strength training.
b. use stress-reduction strategies, such as massage therapy.
c. ensure that their diet includes adequate amounts of high-quality protein.
d. decreasing their energy intake to prevent weight gain.




Answer: A

Calcium and iron intakes may be inadequate in young women because

Calcium and iron intakes may be inadequate in young women because



a. hectic lifestyles and stress reduce the bioavailability of these minerals.
b. they have high intakes of processed foods, which tend to be poor sources of these minerals.
c. intake of foods high in these minerals may be restricted because of attempts to lose weight.
d. requirements for these minerals are very high and cannot be met without using supplements.




Answer: C

Growth is usually complete by the

Growth is usually complete by the



a. early 20s for men and women.
b. late teens for men and women.
c. late teens for women and early 20s for men.
d. late teens for men and early 20s for women.



Answer: C

The term productive aging refers to

The term productive aging refers to




a. production of offspring to continue the life cycle.
b. holding a productive job throughout all stages of adulthood.
c. an ability to stay active and healthy throughout all stages of adulthood.
d. development of attitudes and skills that support adaptation to the transitions of life.


Answer: D

Infants may need supplements of

Infants may need supplements of




a. iron, fluoride, and vitamin D.
b. calcium, magnesium, and vitamin D.
c. iron, zinc, and vitamin E.
d. calcium, fluoride, and vitamin E.




Answer: A

Nursing by the infant results in

Nursing by the infant results in



a. sustained milk production.
b. increased body fat in the infant.
c. increased body fat in the mother.
d. increased digestibility of breast milk.




Answer: A

Prolactin is the hormone that

Prolactin is the hormone that




a. is responsible for milk let-down.
b. is responsible for milk synthesis.
c. prepares the body for pregnancy.
d. is responsible for relaxing muscle tone during pregnancy.



Answer: B

During pregnancy, women should

During pregnancy, women should




a. not exercise at all.
b. exercise for 15 minutes daily.
c. avoid very strenuous exercise.
d. take cool showers after exercise sessions.




Answer: C

Teratogens are

Teratogens are



a. additives that may adversely affect the course of a pregnancy.
b. substances known to cause malformations in the unborn fetus.
c. hormones known to cause malformations in the unborn fetus.
d. carcinogens that may increase the risk of cancer in the fetus.



Answer: B

Dietary calcium needs of pregnant women are

Dietary calcium needs of pregnant women are



a. higher than for nonpregnant women to form the fetal skeleton.
b. higher than for nonpregnant women because intestinal absorption decreases.
c. the same as for nonpregnant women because intestinal absorption increases.
d. lower than for nonpregnant women because calcium metabolism is more efficient.



Answer: C

The amount of iron needed during pregnancy is

The amount of iron needed during pregnancy is



a. difficult to achieve without taking a supplement.
b. easy to achieve with a well-balanced diet.
c. the same as the amount needed by nonpregnant women.
d. less than for nonpregnant women because there are no menstrual losses.



Answer: A

Vouchers for food are benefits of the

Vouchers for food are benefits of the




a. La Leche League.
b. United States Department of Agriculture Assistance Program.
c. Special Supplemental Program for Women, Infants, and Children.
d. U.S. Public Health Service and the American Academy of Pediatrics.



Answer: C

To prevent neural tube defects, the U.S. Public Health Service and the American Academy of Pediatrics now recommend adequate intake of

To prevent neural tube defects, the U.S. Public Health Service and the American Academy of Pediatrics now recommend adequate intake of




a. protein by women of childbearing age.
b. protein by women in the first trimester of pregnancy.
c. folic acid by women of childbearing age.
d. folic acid by women in the first trimester of pregnancy.



Answer: C

A woman who is 4 months pregnant and has already gained 25 pounds should

A woman who is 4 months pregnant and has already gained 25 pounds should



a. eat a low-calorie diet to help her lose the extra weight.
b. modify her food intake if it is excessive but not attempt to lose weight.
c. take a multivitamin/mineral supplement and consume 1200 kcal a day.
d. work hard not to gain any more weight during the remainder of the pregnancy.



Answer: B

For a woman with a healthy weight before pregnancy, gaining 25 to 35 pounds during pregnancy is considered to be

For a woman with a healthy weight before pregnancy, gaining 25 to 35 pounds during pregnancy is considered to be




a. too low for a healthy pregnancy.
b. too high for a healthy pregnancy.
c. the current recommended range for weight gain.
d. the current range for weight gain for a woman experiencing gestational diabetes.




Answer: C

Intrauterine growth retardation may be caused by

Intrauterine growth retardation may be caused by



a. poor weight gain during pregnancy.
b. gestational diabetes during pregnancy.
c. excessive weight gain during pregnancy.
d. excessive use of vitamin and mineral supplements.




Answer: A

The operating nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving general anesthesia. Organize the nursing interventions in chronological order of the stages of general anesthesia, beginning with Stage I (1) and ending with Stage IV (4).

The operating nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving general anesthesia. Organize the nursing interventions in chronological order of the stages of general anesthesia, beginning with Stage I (1) and ending with Stage IV (4).


1 Place client into operative position.
2 Prepare for and assist in treatment of cardiac and/or respiratory arrest.
3 Avoid auditory and physical stimuli.
4 Keep discussions about the client to a minimum.


Answer:


4) Keep discussions about the client to a minimum.
3) Avoid auditory and physical stimuli.
1) Place client into operative position.
2) Prepare for and assist in treatment of cardiac and/or respiratory arrest.

An instructor is developing for a class a teaching plan about agents used for intravenous (IV) anesthesia. Which of the following would the instructor include in this plan about these agents and this type of anesthesia? Select all that apply.

An instructor is developing for a class a teaching plan about agents used for intravenous (IV) anesthesia. Which of the following would the instructor include in this plan about these agents and this type of anesthesia? Select all that apply.



a) More pleasant onset of anesthesia
b) Long duration of action
c) Associated with more nausea
d) Need for little equipment
e) Ease of administration



Answer: A, D & E.

A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60 g I.V. After ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:

A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60 g I.V. After ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:



a) hallucinations and respiratory depression.
b) hiccups.
c) respiratory depression.
d) extrapyramidal reactions.
e) hallucinations.
f) extrapyramidal reactions and hiccups.



Answer: A

A medical student, scheduled to observe surgery, enters the unrestricted surgical zone wearing jeans, a t-shirt, and tennis shoes. What is the best action by the nurse?

A medical student, scheduled to observe surgery, enters the unrestricted surgical zone wearing jeans, a t-shirt, and tennis shoes. What is the best action by the nurse?



a) No action is needed.
b) Immediately escort the medical student out of the area.
c) Educate the medical student on required attire for each surgical zone.
d) Provide the medical student a cap and mask.



Answer: C

The physician, concerned about aspiration during a surgical procedure, orders a medication to increase gastric pH. Which of the following medications would the nurse document as given?

The physician, concerned about aspiration during a surgical procedure, orders a medication to increase gastric pH. Which of the following medications would the nurse document as given?



a) Sodium citrate (Bicitria)
b) Famotadine (Pepcid)
c) Midazolam (Versed)
d) Vecuronium (Norcuron)



Answer: A

Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse plan to address first in the client upon arrival in the intraoperative setting?

Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse plan to address first in the client upon arrival in the intraoperative setting? 



a) Disturbed sensory perception related to the effects of general anesthesia
b) Risk of latex allergy response related to possible exposure in the OR environment
c) Risk for perioperative positioning injury related to positioning in the OR
d) Anxiety related to ineffective coping with surgical concerns




Answer: D

A patient has received general anesthesia and is progressing through the stages. Using the manifestations below, place them in the proper sequence from stage I to stage IV.

A patient has received general anesthesia and is progressing through the stages. Using the manifestations below, place them in the proper sequence from stage I to stage IV.




1 Shallow respirations
2 Unconsciousness
3 Pupil dilation
4 Ringing in the ears




Answer: 

4) Ringing in the ears
3) Pupil dilation
2) Unconsciousness
1) Shallow respirations


When developing a teaching plan for a patient scheduled for ambulatory surgery with epidural anesthesia, which of the following would the nurse include?

When developing a teaching plan for a patient scheduled for ambulatory surgery with epidural anesthesia, which of the following would the nurse include? 



a) "You won't be able to move, but you'll be able to feel sensations."
b) "The anesthetic is introduced directly into the spinal cord."
c) "Normally, the blood pressure drops fairly low initially."
d) "You shouldn't experience a headache after this type of anesthesia."




Answer: D

A patient is undergoing surgery with a brachial plexus block to the right wrist. The patient voices concerns about anesthesia awareness. What is the best response by the nurse?

A patient is undergoing surgery with a brachial plexus block to the right wrist. The patient voices concerns about anesthesia awareness. What is the best response by the nurse?



a) "Because of the type of anesthesia used, you may be aware of what is going on around you."
b) "Anesthesia awareness is not a concern with type of surgery you are having."
c) "The entire surgical team will monitor for anesthesia awareness and treat it appropriately."
d) "Advances in medicines used decrease the chance of anesthesia awareness. What are your major concerns?"




Answer: A

A list of commonly used medications for a particular surgical procedure is provided to the nurse. The anesthesiologist announces the administration of a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant. Which of the following medications should the nurse document as having been administered?

A list of commonly used medications for a particular surgical procedure is provided to the nurse. The anesthesiologist announces the administration of a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant. Which of the following medications should the nurse document as having been administered?



a) Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
b) Pancuronium (Pavulon)
c) Morphine sulfate
d) Succinylcholine (Anectine)




Answer: B

Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for a client who has undergone surgery for a liver disorder and has started shivering?

Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for a client who has undergone surgery for a liver disorder and has started shivering?



a) Place the client on a hypothermia blanket.
b) Cover the client with a light blanket.
c) Provide the client with warm fluids.
d) Ensure that the room temperature is below 70°F.



Answer: B

A patient undergoes induction for general anesthesia at 8:30 a.m. and is being assessed continuously for the development of malignant hyperthermia. At which time would the patient be most likely to exhibit manifestations of this condition?

A patient undergoes induction for general anesthesia at 8:30 a.m. and is being assessed continuously for the development of malignant hyperthermia. At which time would the patient be most likely to exhibit manifestations of this condition? 



a) 8:40 to 8:50 a.m.
b) 9:00 to 9:10 a.m.
c) 9:30 to 9:40 a.m.
d) 10:00 to 10:10 a.m.



Answer: A

A patient who has received general anesthesia has reached stage II. Which of the following would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

A patient who has received general anesthesia has reached stage II. Which of the following would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? 



a) Weak, thready pulse and cyanosis
b) Pupillary dilation and rapid pulse
c) Unconsciousness and regular respirations
d) Dizziness and a feeling of detachment




Answer: B

What action during a surgical procedure requires immediate intervention by the circulating nurse?

What action during a surgical procedure requires immediate intervention by the circulating nurse?




a) The registered nurse's first assistant suturing the surgical wound
b) The scrub nurse calling the blood bank to obtain blood products
c) The surgeon reaching within the sterile field to obtain equipment
d) The anesthesiologist monitoring blood gas levels



Answer: B

A patient is administered succinylcholine and propofol (Diprivan) for induction of anesthesia. One hour after administration, the patient is demonstrating muscle rigidity with a heart rate of 180. What should the nurse do first?

A patient is administered succinylcholine and propofol (Diprivan) for induction of anesthesia. One hour after administration, the patient is demonstrating muscle rigidity with a heart rate of 180. What should the nurse do first?



a) Administer dantrolene sodium (Dantrium).
b) Notify the surgical team.
c) Obtain cooling blankets.
d) Document the assessment findings.



Answer: B

A patient who has undergone surgery and received spinal anesthesia is reporting a headache. Which of the following would be most appropriate?

A patient who has undergone surgery and received spinal anesthesia is reporting a headache. Which of the following would be most appropriate? 




a) Position the patient on the side.
b) Turn on the television for distraction.
c) Notify the anesthesiologist immediately.
d) Encourage increased fluid intake.


Answer: D

A nurse suspects malignant hyperthermia in a patient who underwent surgery approximately 18 hours ago. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a late, ominous sign?

A nurse suspects malignant hyperthermia in a patient who underwent surgery approximately 18 hours ago. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a late, ominous sign? 



a) Muscle rigidity
b) Oliguria
c) Rapid rise in body temperature
d) Tachycardia



Answer: C

The nurse is aware that infection is a potential complication of surgery. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent infection? Select all that apply.

The nurse is aware that infection is a potential complication of surgery. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent infection? Select all that apply.



a) Avoid touching sterile items unless necessary.
b) Wear a long-sleeved, sterile gown and gloves.
c) Remove hair from the surgical site using a razor.
d) Keep artificial nails clean and in good repair.
e) Alert the surgical team of any breaches of sterile technique.



Answer: A, B & E.

A nurse who works in the OR is required to assess the patient continuously and protect the patient from potential complications. Which of the following would not be included as a symptom of malignant hyperthermia?

A nurse who works in the OR is required to assess the patient continuously and protect the patient from potential complications. Which of the following would not be included as a symptom of malignant hyperthermia?



a) Cardiac arrest
b) Cyanosis
c) Mottled skin
d) Increased urine output


Answer: D

The surgical client is at risk for injury related to positioning. Which of the following clinical manifestations exhibited by the client would indicate the goal was met of avoiding injury?

The surgical client is at risk for injury related to positioning. Which of the following clinical manifestations exhibited by the client would indicate the goal was met of avoiding injury?



a) Absence of itching
b) Peripheral pulses palpable
c) Pulse oximetry 98%
d) Vital signs within normal limits for client


Answer: B

After teaching a class about agents commonly associated with the development of malignant hyperthermia, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify which drug as a possible cause?

After teaching a class about agents commonly associated with the development of malignant hyperthermia, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify which drug as a possible cause? 



a) Halothane
b) Epinephrine
c) Succinylcholine
d) Morphine



Answer: D

During the surgical procedure, the client exhibits tachycardia, generalized muscle rigidity, and a temperature of 103°F. The nurse should prepare to administer:

During the surgical procedure, the client exhibits tachycardia, generalized muscle rigidity, and a temperature of 103°F. The nurse should prepare to administer:



a) verapamil (Isoptin)
b) potassium chloride
c) an acetaminophen suppository
d) dantrolene sodium (Dantrium)




Answer: D

A nurse is administering moderate sedation to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse bases her next action on the principle that:

A nurse is administering moderate sedation to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse bases her next action on the principle that:



a) administering I.V. antibiotics can prevent pneumonia.
b) it may be necessary to raise the head of this client's bed.
c) inserting a Foley catheter can decrease fluid retention.
d) this client may need intubation.



Answer: B

A 55-year-old patient arrives at the operating room. The nurse is reviewing the medical record and notes that the patient has a history of osteoporosis in her lower back and hips. The patient is scheduled to receive epidural anesthesia. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be a priority for this patient?

A 55-year-old patient arrives at the operating room. The nurse is reviewing the medical record and notes that the patient has a history of osteoporosis in her lower back and hips. The patient is scheduled to receive epidural anesthesia. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be a priority for this patient? 



a) Risk for perioperative positioning injury related to operative position
b) Disturbed sensory perception related to sedation
c) Anxiety related to the surgical experience
d) Risk for injury related to effects of anesthetic agents


Answer: A

Which nursing diagnosis is most important for the client who is undergoing a surgical procedure expected to last several hours?

Which nursing diagnosis is most important for the client who is undergoing a surgical procedure expected to last several hours? 



a) Risk for perioperative positioning injury related to positioning in the OR
b) Risk of latex allergy response related to possible exposure in the OR environment
c) Anxiety related to ineffective coping with surgical concerns
d) Disturbed sensory perception related to the effects of general anesthesia



Answer: A

Which intervention should the nurse implement during the intraoperative period to protect the client from injury? Select all that apply.

Which intervention should the nurse implement during the intraoperative period to protect the client from injury? Select all that apply. 



a) Administer anti-anxiety medication.
b) Verify scheduled procedure with client.
c) Assess the client for allergies.
d) Confirm the consent form is signed.
e) Cover the client with warm blankets.



Answer: B, C & D.

What is the priority action when the circulating nurse is completing a second verification of the surgical procedure and surgical site?

What is the priority action when the circulating nurse is completing a second verification of the surgical procedure and surgical site?



a) Obtain the attention of all members of the surgical team.
b) Discuss the surgical procedure and surgical site with the patient.
c) Review the complications and allergies with the anesthesiologist.
d) Ask the surgeon if the marked surgical site is correct.



Answer: A

The surgical client has been intubated and general anesthesia has been administered. The client exhibits cyanosis, shallow respirations, and a weak, thready pulse. The nurse recognizes that the client is in which stage of general anesthesia?

The surgical client has been intubated and general anesthesia has been administered. The client exhibits cyanosis, shallow respirations, and a weak, thready pulse. The nurse recognizes that the client is in which stage of general anesthesia?




a) Stage II
b) Stage IV
c) Stage III
d) Stage I


Answer: B

The nurse is educating new employees regarding the wearing of masks in the operating room. What information should the nurse provide? Select all that apply.

The nurse is educating new employees regarding the wearing of masks in the operating room. What information should the nurse provide? Select all that apply.




a) Masks can be worn outside the surgical department if the surgery is less than 5 minutes away.
b) When not using the mask, you can wear it around your neck.
c) Masks should be tight fitting.
d) You must change masks between treating patients.
e) Masks should cover the nose and mouth completely.
f) Masks must be worn at all times in the semirestricted zone.
e) Masks should cover the nose and mouth completely.



Answer: C & D.

The client asks the nurse about possible ill effects from general anesthesia. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?

The client asks the nurse about possible ill effects from general anesthesia. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?




a) "Few negative effects occur with general anesthesia."
b) "Amnesia and analgesia are some of the negative effects of anesthesia."
c) "Clients can experience pain and loss of consciousness."
d) "Some possible negative effects include oversedation and bradycardia."



Answer: D

A patient is undergoing general anesthesia. The nurse anesthetist starts to administer the anesthesia. The patient starts giggling and kicking her legs. What stage of anesthesia would the nurse document related to the findings?

A patient is undergoing general anesthesia. The nurse anesthetist starts to administer the anesthesia. The patient starts giggling and kicking her legs. What stage of anesthesia would the nurse document related to the findings?



a) I
b) IV
c) II
d) III


Answer: C

Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?

Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?



a) Discarding an object that comes in contact with the 1-inch border
b) Reaching over the sterile field
c) Touching sterile items with a clean-gloved hand
d) Touching the edges of an open sterile package



Answer: A

A scrub nurse is diagnosed with a skin infection to the right forearm. What is the priority action by the nurse?

A scrub nurse is diagnosed with a skin infection to the right forearm. What is the priority action by the nurse?



a) Ensure the infection is covered with a dressing.
b) Report the infection to an immediate supervisor.
c) Return to work after being on antibiotics for 24 hours.
d) Request role change to circulating nurse



Answer: B

A perioperative nurse is conducting an in-service education program about maintaining surgical asepsis during the intraoperative period. Which of the following would the nurse emphasize?

A perioperative nurse is conducting an in-service education program about maintaining surgical asepsis during the intraoperative period. Which of the following would the nurse emphasize? 



a) If a tear occurs in a sterile drape, a new sterile drape is applied on top of it.
b) A distance of 3 feet must be maintained when moving around a sterile field.
c) Circulating nurses may come in contact with the sterile field without contaminating it.
d) The edges of a sterile package, once opened, are considered unsterile.




Answer: D

A nurse is reviewing the intraoperative record of a patient who has just returned from surgery. The patient received general anesthesia with intravenous agents. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?

A nurse is reviewing the intraoperative record of a patient who has just returned from surgery. The patient received general anesthesia with intravenous agents. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant? 



a) Fentanyl
b) Succinylcholine
c) Sufentanil
d) Atracurium


Answer: D

The client asks the nurse how the spinal anesthesia will be administered. The best response by the nurse is:

The client asks the nurse how the spinal anesthesia will be administered. The best response by the nurse is:



a) "The medication will be injected into the muscle by the anesthesiologist."
b) "You will inhale the medication through a mask the anesthesiologist will place over your face."
c) "The anesthesiologist will inject the anesthetic into the space around your lower spinal cord."
d) "The anesthesiologist will inject the anesthetic through your IV."



Answer: C

Nursing students are reviewing information about agents used for anesthesia. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which of the following as an inhalation anesthetic?

Nursing students are reviewing information about agents used for anesthesia. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which of the following as an inhalation anesthetic?



a) Fentanyl
b) Succinylcholine
c) Halothane
d) Propofol


Answer: C

A student nurse is scheduled to observe a surgical procedure. The nurse provides the student nurse with education on the dress policy and provides all needed attire to enter a restricted surgical zone. Which observation by the nurse requires immediate intervention?

A student nurse is scheduled to observe a surgical procedure. The nurse provides the student nurse with education on the dress policy and provides all needed attire to enter a restricted surgical zone. Which observation by the nurse requires immediate intervention?



a) Mask is placed over nose and extends to bottom lip.
b) Scrub top and drawstring are tucked into pants.
c) Shoe covers are used.
d) Hair is pulled back and covered by a cap.



Answer: A

A nurse is monitoring a client recovering from moderate sedation that was administered during a colonoscopy. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?

A nurse is monitoring a client recovering from moderate sedation that was administered during a colonoscopy. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?




a) Decreased cough and gag reflexes
b) Heart rate of 84 beats/minute
c) Oxygen saturation (SaO2) of 85%
d) Blood-tinged stools




Answer: C

Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement to decrease the client's risk for injury during the intraoperative period?

Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement to decrease the client's risk for injury during the intraoperative period?




a) Allow the client to verbalize fears.
b) Keep the family informed of the client's status.
c) Verify the client's preoperative vital signs.
d) Assess the client for allergies.


Answer: D

The anesthesiologist will use moderate (conscious) sedation during the client's surgical procedure. The circulating nurse will expect the client to:

The anesthesiologist will use moderate (conscious) sedation during the client's surgical procedure. The circulating nurse will expect the client to:



a) Need pain control throughout the procedure
b) Respond verbally during the procedure
c) Be anxious throughout the procedure
d) Need an endotracheal tube



Answer: B

A nurse is working as a registered nurse first assistant as defined by the state's nurse practice act. This nurse practices under the direct supervision of which surgical team member?

A nurse is working as a registered nurse first assistant as defined by the state's nurse practice act. This nurse practices under the direct supervision of which surgical team member? 



a) Surgeon
b) Scrub nurse
c) Circulating nurse
d) Anesthetist




Answer: A

The circulating nurse is documenting all medications administered during a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist administers an opioid analgesic. What medication would the nurse check as having being administered?

The circulating nurse is documenting all medications administered during a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist administers an opioid analgesic. What medication would the nurse check as having being administered?



a) Mivacurium (Mivacron)
b) Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
c) Metocurine (Metubine)
d) Etomidate (Amidate)




Answer: B

A patient undergoing coronary artery bypass surgery is subjected to intentional hypothermia. The patient is ready for rewarming procedures. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?

A patient undergoing coronary artery bypass surgery is subjected to intentional hypothermia. The patient is ready for rewarming procedures. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?



a) Temporarily set the OR temperature to 30°C.
b) Apply a warm air blanket, gradually increasing body temperature.
c) Administer IV fluids warmed to room temperature.
d) Place warm damp drapes on the patient, replacing them every 5 minutes.



Answer: B

When integrating the principles for maintaining surgical asepsis during surgery, which of the following would be most appropriate?

When integrating the principles for maintaining surgical asepsis during surgery, which of the following would be most appropriate?



a) Considering the gown sterile from mid-thigh to neck
b) Ensuring gown sleeves remain sterile 2 inches above the elbow to cuff
c) Positioning the sterile drape on a table from back to front
d) Allowing circulating nurses to contact sterile equipment




Answer: B

A patient is undergoing a lumbar puncture. The nurse educates the patient about surgical positioning. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?

A patient is undergoing a lumbar puncture. The nurse educates the patient about surgical positioning. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?



a) "You will be placed flat on the table, face down."
b) "You will be lying on your side with your knees to your chest."
c) "You will be on your back with the head of the bed at 30 degrees."
d) "You will be flat on your back with the table slanted so your head is below your feet."



Answer: B

After teaching a patient scheduled for ambulatory surgery using moderate sedation, the nurse determines that the patient has understood the teaching based on which of the following statements?

After teaching a patient scheduled for ambulatory surgery using moderate sedation, the nurse determines that the patient has understood the teaching based on which of the following statements? 



a) "I won't feel it, but I'll have a tube to help me breathe."
b) "I'll be sleepy but able to respond to your questions."
c) "I'm so glad that I will be unconscious during the surgery."
d) "Only the surgical area will be numb."



Answer: B

The anesthesiologist administered a transsacral conduction block. Which of the following documentation by the nurse is consistent with the anesthesia being administered?

The anesthesiologist administered a transsacral conduction block. Which of the following documentation by the nurse is consistent with the anesthesia being administered?



a) Unresponsive to verbal or tactile stimuli
b) Yelling and pulling at equipment
c) No movement in right lower leg
d) Denies sensation to perineum and lower abdomen



Answer: D

The circulating nurse is unsure if proper technique was followed when placing an object in the sterile field during a surgical procedure. What is the best action by the nurse?

The circulating nurse is unsure if proper technique was followed when placing an object in the sterile field during a surgical procedure. What is the best action by the nurse?



a) Remove the entire sterile field from use.
b) Remove the item from the sterile field.
c) Ask another nurse to review the technique used.
d) Mark the patient's chart for future review of infections.



Answer: A

A 70-year-old patient who is to undergo surgery arrives at the operating room (OR). The nurse, when reviewing the patient's medical record, understands that this patient will require a lower dose of anesthetic agent because of which of the following?

A 70-year-old patient who is to undergo surgery arrives at the operating room (OR). The nurse, when reviewing the patient's medical record, understands that this patient will require a lower dose of anesthetic agent because of which of the following? 



a) Decreased lean tissue mass
b) Increased tissue elasticity
c) Impaired thermoregulation
d) Increased anxiety level




Answer: A

An obese patient is undergoing abdominal surgery. A surgical resident states, "The amount of fat we have to cut through is disgusting" during the procedure. What is the best response by the nurse?

An obese patient is undergoing abdominal surgery. A surgical resident states, "The amount of fat we have to cut through is disgusting" during the procedure. What is the best response by the nurse?





a) Ignore the comment.
b) Report the resident to the attending surgeon.
c) Discuss concerns regarding the comments with the charge nurse.
d) Inform the resident that all communication needs to remain professional.




Answer: D

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient who is to receive general anesthesia and notes a nursing diagnosis of anxiety related to surgical concerns. The nurse implements measures to reduce the patient's anxiety based on the understanding of which of the following?

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient who is to receive general anesthesia and notes a nursing diagnosis of anxiety related to surgical concerns. The nurse implements measures to reduce the patient's anxiety based on the understanding of which of the following? 



a) The patient is at risk for additional complications.
b) The anesthetic will result in a more potent effect on the patient.
c) Increased anxiety can increase the patient's postoperative pain level.
d) Anxiety interferes with progression through the stages of general anesthesia.



Answer: C

The nurse would intervene when making which of the following observations in the surgical environment?

The nurse would intervene when making which of the following observations in the surgical environment?



a) A staff member dressed in street clothes enters the semirestricted zone.
b) A staff member is wearing a surgical mask and shoe covers in the restricted zone.
c) A staff member is wearing scrub clothes in the semirestricted zone.
d) A staff member fails to wear a mask in the semirestricted zone.



Answer: A

The scrub nurse is responsible for:

The scrub nurse is responsible for:



a) Preparing the sterile instruments for the surgical procedure
b) Calling the "time-out" to verify the surgical site and procedure
c) Monitoring the operating-room personnel for breaks in sterile technique
d) Monitoring the administration of the anesthesia


Answer: A