Two hours after a kidney transplant, the nurse obtains all of the following data when assessing the patient. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

Two hours after a kidney transplant, the nurse obtains all of the following data when assessing the patient. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

Answer: The patient's central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased.

The RN observes an LPN/LVN carrying out all of the following actions while caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which action requires the RN to intervene?

The RN observes an LPN/LVN carrying out all of the following actions while caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which action requires the RN to intervene?

Answer: The LPN/LVN gives the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch.

Which information about a patient who was admitted 10 days previously with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

Which information about a patient who was admitted 10 days previously with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

Answer: Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL.

A new order for IV gentamicin (Garamycin) 60 mg BID is received for a patient with diabetes who has pneumonia. When evaluating for adverse effects of the medication, the nurse will plan to monitor the patient's

A new order for IV gentamicin (Garamycin) 60 mg BID is received for a patient with diabetes who has pneumonia. When evaluating for adverse effects of the medication, the nurse will plan to monitor the patient's

Answer: blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

A patient with hypertension and stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving captopril (Capoten). Before administration of the medication, the nurse will check the patient's

A patient with hypertension and stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving captopril (Capoten). Before administration of the medication, the nurse will check the patient's

Answer: potassium.

The nurse is caring for a patient who had kidney transplantation several years ago. Which assessment finding may indicate that the patient is experiencing adverse effects to the prescribed corticosteroid?

The nurse is caring for a patient who had kidney transplantation several years ago. Which assessment finding may indicate that the patient is experiencing adverse effects to the prescribed corticosteroid?

Answer: Joint pain

A patient needing vascular access for hemodialysis asks the nurse what the differences are between an arteriovenous (AV) fistula and a graft. The nurse explains that one advantage of the fistula is that it

A patient needing vascular access for hemodialysis asks the nurse what the differences are between an arteriovenous (AV) fistula and a graft. The nurse explains that one advantage of the fistula is that it

Answer: is much less likely to clot.

Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function for a patient who is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI)?

Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function for a patient who is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI)?

Answer: Calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

The nurse has instructed a patient who is receiving hemodialysis about appropriate dietary choices. Which menu choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been successful?

The nurse has instructed a patient who is receiving hemodialysis about appropriate dietary choices. Which menu choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been successful?

Answer: Scrambled eggs, English muffin, and apple juice

Which patient information will the nurse plan to obtain in order to determine the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Which patient information will the nurse plan to obtain in order to determine the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Answer: Phosphate level

A patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of these orders for the patient will the nurse question?

A patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of these orders for the patient will the nurse question?

Answer: Ibuprofen (Advil) 400 mg PO PRN for pain

A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse obtain to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV?

A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse obtain to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV?

Answer: Cardiac rhythm

A patient with severe heart failure develops elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The nurse will plan care to meet the goal of

A patient with severe heart failure develops elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The nurse will plan care to meet the goal of

Answer: maintaining cardiac output.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30. The nurse will assess the patient for

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30. The nurse will assess the patient for

Answer: rapid respirations.

After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take?

After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take?

Answer: Report the patient's symptoms to the health care provider.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute cholecystitis. Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute cholecystitis. Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

Answer: The patient's stools are clay colored.

A patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which assessment finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

A patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which assessment finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

Answer: Stools test negative for occult blood.

Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment of a patient with cirrhosis will be of most concern?

Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment of a patient with cirrhosis will be of most concern?

Answer: The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended.

Which assessment finding in a patient with acute pancreatitis would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider?

Which assessment finding in a patient with acute pancreatitis would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider?

Answer: Muscle twitching and finger numbness

Which of these laboratory test results will be most important for the nurse to monitor when evaluating the effects of therapy for a patient who has acute pancreatitis?

Which of these laboratory test results will be most important for the nurse to monitor when evaluating the effects of therapy for a patient who has acute pancreatitis?

Answer: Amylase

When assessing a patient who had a liver transplant a week previously, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

When assessing a patient who had a liver transplant a week previously, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

Answer: Temperature 100.8° F (38.2° C)

The health care provider plans a paracentesis for a patient with ascites caused by liver cancer. To prepare the patient for the procedure, the nurse

The health care provider plans a paracentesis for a patient with ascites caused by liver cancer. To prepare the patient for the procedure, the nurse

Answer: asks the patient to empty the bladder.

A patient who has advanced cirrhosis is receiving lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding by the nurse indicates that the medication is effective?

A patient who has advanced cirrhosis is receiving lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding by the nurse indicates that the medication is effective?

Answer: The patient is alert and oriented.

A patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) has a serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse take?

A patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) has a serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse take?

Answer: Administer the spironolactone.

A patient is admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice, nausea, and abnormal liver function studies. Serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?

A patient is admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice, nausea, and abnormal liver function studies. Serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?

Answer: "Do you use any over-the-counter (OTC) drugs?"

When combination therapy of -interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol) is being used to treat chronic hepatitis C, the nurse will plan to monitor for

When combination therapy of -interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol) is being used to treat chronic hepatitis C, the nurse will plan to monitor for

Answer: leukopenia.

When a patient is diagnosed with acute hepatitis B, the nurse will plan to teach the patient about

When a patient is diagnosed with acute hepatitis B, the nurse will plan to teach the patient about

Answer: measures that will be helpful in improving appetite.

A patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Answer: Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing.

The nurse determines that administration of hepatitis B vaccine to a patient has been effective when a specimen of the patient's blood reveals

The nurse determines that administration of hepatitis B vaccine to a patient has been effective when a specimen of the patient's blood reveals

Answer: anti-HBs.

A patient contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, the nurse would expect serologic testing to reveal

A patient contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, the nurse would expect serologic testing to reveal

Answer: anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM).

A patient with acute gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is receiving normal saline IV at a rate of 500 mL/hr. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate immediately to the health care provider?

A patient with acute gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is receiving normal saline IV at a rate of 500 mL/hr. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate immediately to the health care provider?

Answer: The patient's lungs have crackles audible to the midline.

All of the following orders are received for a patient who has vomited 1500 mL of bright red blood. Which order will the nurse implement first?

All of the following orders are received for a patient who has vomited 1500 mL of bright red blood. Which order will the nurse implement first?

Answer: Infuse 1000 mL of lactated Ringer's solution.

Which of these assessment findings in a patient with a hiatal hernia who returned from a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication 4 hours ago is most important for the nurse to address immediately?

Which of these assessment findings in a patient with a hiatal hernia who returned from a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication 4 hours ago is most important for the nurse to address immediately?

Answer: The patient has absent breath sounds throughout the left lung.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Answer: A patient with esophageal varices who has a blood pressure of 96/54 mm Hg

The health care provider prescribes the following therapies for a patient who has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after 3 days of nausea and vomiting. Which order will the nurse implement first?

The health care provider prescribes the following therapies for a patient who has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after 3 days of nausea and vomiting. Which order will the nurse implement first?

Answer: Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr.

Which information about a patient who has just been admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting will require the most rapid intervention by the nurse?

Which information about a patient who has just been admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting will require the most rapid intervention by the nurse?

Answer: The patient is lethargic and difficult to arouse.

When counseling a patient with a family history of stomach cancer about ways to decrease risk for developing stomach cancer, the nurse will teach the patient to avoid

When counseling a patient with a family history of stomach cancer about ways to decrease risk for developing stomach cancer, the nurse will teach the patient to avoid

Answer: smoked foods such as bacon and ham.

A patient with a recent 20-pound unintended weight loss is diagnosed with stomach cancer. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

A patient with a recent 20-pound unintended weight loss is diagnosed with stomach cancer. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

Answer: Offer supplemental feedings between meals.

Which information will be best for the nurse to include when teaching a patient with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) about dietary management of the disease?

Which information will be best for the nurse to include when teaching a patient with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) about dietary management of the disease?

Answer: "Avoid foods that cause pain after you eat them."

The health care provider prescribes antacids and sucralfate (Carafate) for treatment of a patient's peptic ulcer. The nurse will teach the patient to take

The health care provider prescribes antacids and sucralfate (Carafate) for treatment of a patient's peptic ulcer. The nurse will teach the patient to take

Answer: antacids after eating and sucralfate 30 minutes before eating.

A patient who requires daily use of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for management of severe rheumatoid arthritis has recently developed melena. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about

A patient who requires daily use of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for management of severe rheumatoid arthritis has recently developed melena. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about

Answer: the benefits of misoprostol (Cytotec) in protecting the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa.

A patient recovering from a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II) for treatment of a duodenal ulcer develops dizziness, weakness, and palpitations about 20 minutes after eating. To avoid recurrence of these symptoms, the nurse teaches the patient to

A patient recovering from a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II) for treatment of a duodenal ulcer develops dizziness, weakness, and palpitations about 20 minutes after eating. To avoid recurrence of these symptoms, the nurse teaches the patient to

Answer: lie down for about 30 minutes after eating.

The nurse implements discharge teaching for a patient following a gastroduodenostomy for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?

The nurse implements discharge teaching for a patient following a gastroduodenostomy for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?

Answer: "Vitamin supplements may be needed to prevent problems with anemia."

Twelve hours after undergoing a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I), a patient complains of increasing abdominal pain. The patient has absent bowel sounds and 200 mL of bright red nasogastric (NG) drainage in the last hour. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to

Twelve hours after undergoing a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I), a patient complains of increasing abdominal pain. The patient has absent bowel sounds and 200 mL of bright red nasogastric (NG) drainage in the last hour. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to

Answer: notify the surgeon.

A patient with a peptic ulcer who has a nasogastric (NG) tube develops sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, diaphoresis, and a very firm abdomen. Which action should the nurse take next?

A patient with a peptic ulcer who has a nasogastric (NG) tube develops sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, diaphoresis, and a very firm abdomen. Which action should the nurse take next?

Answer: Obtain the vital signs.

A patient with a bleeding duodenal ulcer has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place, and the health care provider orders 30 mL of aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) to be instilled through the tube every hour. To evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment, the nurse

A patient with a bleeding duodenal ulcer has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place, and the health care provider orders 30 mL of aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) to be instilled through the tube every hour. To evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment, the nurse

Answer: periodically aspirates and tests gastric pH.

The family member of a patient who has suffered massive abdominal trauma in an automobile accident asks the nurse why the patient is receiving famotidine (Pepcid). The nurse will explain that the medication will

The family member of a patient who has suffered massive abdominal trauma in an automobile accident asks the nurse why the patient is receiving famotidine (Pepcid). The nurse will explain that the medication will

Answer: inhibit the development of stress ulcers.

The health care provider orders intravenous (IV) ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding caused by peptic ulcer disease. When teaching the patient about the effect of the medication, which information will the nurse include?

The health care provider orders intravenous (IV) ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding caused by peptic ulcer disease. When teaching the patient about the effect of the medication, which information will the nurse include?

Answer: "Ranitidine decreases secretion of gastric acid."

A 22-year-old patient with Escherichia coli O157:H7 food poisoning is admitted to the hospital with bloody diarrhea and dehydration. All of the following orders are received. Which order will the nurse question?

A 22-year-old patient with Escherichia coli O157:H7 food poisoning is admitted to the hospital with bloody diarrhea and dehydration. All of the following orders are received. Which order will the nurse question?

Answer: Administer loperamide (Imodium) after each stool.

A patient is hospitalized with vomiting of "coffee-ground" emesis. The nurse will anticipate preparing the patient for

A patient is hospitalized with vomiting of "coffee-ground" emesis. The nurse will anticipate preparing the patient for

Answer: endoscopy.

A patient who has had several episodes of bloody diarrhea is admitted to the emergency department. Which action should the nurse anticipate taking?

A patient who has had several episodes of bloody diarrhea is admitted to the emergency department. Which action should the nurse anticipate taking?

Answer: Obtain a stool specimen for culture.

A patient with peptic ulcer disease associated with the presence of Helicobacter pylori is treated with triple drug therapy. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about

A patient with peptic ulcer disease associated with the presence of Helicobacter pylori is treated with triple drug therapy. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about

Answer: amoxicillin (Amoxil), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and omeprazole (Prilosec).

Cobalamin injections have been prescribed for a patient with chronic atrophic gastritis. The nurse determines that teaching regarding the injections has been effective when the patient states,

Cobalamin injections have been prescribed for a patient with chronic atrophic gastritis. The nurse determines that teaching regarding the injections has been effective when the patient states,

Answer: "The cobalamin injections will prevent me from becoming anemic."

A patient who is nauseated and vomiting up blood-streaked fluid is admitted to the hospital with acute gastritis. To determine possible risk factors for gastritis, the nurse will ask the patient about

A patient who is nauseated and vomiting up blood-streaked fluid is admitted to the hospital with acute gastritis. To determine possible risk factors for gastritis, the nurse will ask the patient about

Answer: use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

The nurse will plan to teach the patient with newly diagnosed achalasia that

The nurse will plan to teach the patient with newly diagnosed achalasia that

Answer: endoscopic procedures may be used for treatment.

A patient has just arrived on the postoperative unit after having a laparoscopic esophagectomy for treatment of esophageal cancer. Which nursing action should be included in the postoperative plan of care?

A patient has just arrived on the postoperative unit after having a laparoscopic esophagectomy for treatment of esophageal cancer. Which nursing action should be included in the postoperative plan of care?

Answer: Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Answer: "It will be helpful to keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks."

A 62-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with esophageal cancer tells the nurse, "I know that my chances are not very good, but I do not feel ready to die yet." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A 62-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with esophageal cancer tells the nurse, "I know that my chances are not very good, but I do not feel ready to die yet." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Answer: "Having this new diagnosis must be very hard for you."

A patient who recently has been experiencing frequent heartburn is seen in the clinic. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about

A patient who recently has been experiencing frequent heartburn is seen in the clinic. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about

Answer: proton pump inhibitors.

After the nurse teaches a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about recommended dietary modifications, which diet choice for a snack 2 hours before bedtime indicates that the teaching has been effective?

After the nurse teaches a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about recommended dietary modifications, which diet choice for a snack 2 hours before bedtime indicates that the teaching has been effective?

Answer: Cherry gelatin and fruit

A patient with recurring heartburn receives a new prescription for esomeprazole (Nexium). In teaching the patient about this medication, the nurse explains that this drug

A patient with recurring heartburn receives a new prescription for esomeprazole (Nexium). In teaching the patient about this medication, the nurse explains that this drug

Answer: treats gastroesophageal reflux disease by decreasing stomach acid production.

When admitting a patient with a stroke who is unconscious and unresponsive to stimuli, the nurse learns from the patient's family that the patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse will plan to do frequent assessments of the patient's

When admitting a patient with a stroke who is unconscious and unresponsive to stimuli, the nurse learns from the patient's family that the patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse will plan to do frequent assessments of the patient's

Answer: breath sounds.

The nurse is assessing a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) who is experiencing increasing discomfort. Which patient statement indicates that additional patient education about GERD is needed?

The nurse is assessing a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) who is experiencing increasing discomfort. Which patient statement indicates that additional patient education about GERD is needed?

Answer: "I eat small meals throughout the day and have a bedtime snack."

To decrease the risk for cancers of the tongue and buccal mucosa, which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient who is seen for an annual physical exam in the outpatient clinic?

To decrease the risk for cancers of the tongue and buccal mucosa, which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient who is seen for an annual physical exam in the outpatient clinic?

Answer: Avoid use of cigarettes and smokeless tobacco.

When the nurse is assessing the mouth of a patient who uses smokeless tobacco for signs of oral cancer, which finding will be of most concern?

When the nurse is assessing the mouth of a patient who uses smokeless tobacco for signs of oral cancer, which finding will be of most concern?

Answer: Red, velvety patches on the buccal mucosa

A patient who is receiving chemotherapy develops a Candida albicans oral infection. The nurse will anticipate the need for

A patient who is receiving chemotherapy develops a Candida albicans oral infection. The nurse will anticipate the need for

Answer: administration of nystatin (Mycostatin) oral tablets.

A patient who has been NPO during treatment for nausea and vomiting caused by gastric irritation is to start oral intake. Which of these should the nurse offer to the patient?

A patient who has been NPO during treatment for nausea and vomiting caused by gastric irritation is to start oral intake. Which of these should the nurse offer to the patient?

Answer: A dish of lemon gelatin

A patient with deep partial-thickness burns experiences severe pain associated with nausea during dressing changes. Which action will be most useful in decreasing the patient's nausea?

A patient with deep partial-thickness burns experiences severe pain associated with nausea during dressing changes. Which action will be most useful in decreasing the patient's nausea?

Answer: Administer the prescribed morphine sulfate before dressing changes.

Following an exploratory laparotomy and bowel resection, a patient who has a nasogastric tube to suction complains of nausea and stomach distention. The first action by the nurse should be to

Following an exploratory laparotomy and bowel resection, a patient who has a nasogastric tube to suction complains of nausea and stomach distention. The first action by the nurse should be to

Answer: reposition the tube and check for placement.

A patient is brought to the emergency department with a knife impaled in the abdomen following a domestic fight. During the initial assessment of the patient, the nurse should

A patient is brought to the emergency department with a knife impaled in the abdomen following a domestic fight. During the initial assessment of the patient, the nurse should

Answer: assess the BP and pulse.

The nurse who is interviewing a 40-year-old obtains information about the following patient problems. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

The nurse who is interviewing a 40-year-old obtains information about the following patient problems. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

Answer: The patient has recently noticed blood in the stools.

A hospitalized patient who has been taking antibiotics for several days develops watery diarrhea. Which action should the nurse take first?

A hospitalized patient who has been taking antibiotics for several days develops watery diarrhea. Which action should the nurse take first?

Answer: Place the patient on contact precautions.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which of the following patients should the nurse assess first?

After receiving change-of-shift report, which of the following patients should the nurse assess first?

Answer: A patient who has abdominal distention and an apical heart rate of 136 beats/minute

A patient with Crohn's disease who is taking infliximab (Remicade) calls the nurse in the outpatient clinic about all of these symptoms. Which symptom is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

A patient with Crohn's disease who is taking infliximab (Remicade) calls the nurse in the outpatient clinic about all of these symptoms. Which symptom is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

Answer: Elevated temperature

Which of these prescribed interventions will the nurse implement first when caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with peritonitis caused by a ruptured diverticulum?

Which of these prescribed interventions will the nurse implement first when caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with peritonitis caused by a ruptured diverticulum?

Answer: Infuse metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg IV.

When interviewing a patient with abdominal pain and possible irritable bowel syndrome, which question will be most important for the nurse to ask?

When interviewing a patient with abdominal pain and possible irritable bowel syndrome, which question will be most important for the nurse to ask?

Answer: "How long have you had abdominal pain?"

A critically ill patient develops incontinence of watery stools. What action will be best for the nurse to take to prevent complications associated with ongoing incontinence?

A critically ill patient develops incontinence of watery stools. What action will be best for the nurse to take to prevent complications associated with ongoing incontinence?

Answer: Implement fecal management system.

When performing an admission assessment for a patient with abdominal pain, the nurse palpates the left lower quadrant and the patient complains of right lower quadrant pain. The nurse will document this as

When performing an admission assessment for a patient with abdominal pain, the nurse palpates the left lower quadrant and the patient complains of right lower quadrant pain. The nurse will document this as

Answer: Rovsing sign.

A patient with Crohn's disease has megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about the ongoing need for

A patient with Crohn's disease has megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about the ongoing need for

Answer: cobalamin (B12) nasal spray or injections

A patient calls the clinic and tells the nurse about a new onset of severe and frequent, diarrhea. The nurse anticipates that the patient will need to

A patient calls the clinic and tells the nurse about a new onset of severe and frequent, diarrhea. The nurse anticipates that the patient will need to

Answer: collect a stool specimen.

Which instructions will the nurse include in discharge teaching for a patient who has had a hemorrhoidectomy at an outpatient surgical center?

Which instructions will the nurse include in discharge teaching for a patient who has had a hemorrhoidectomy at an outpatient surgical center?

Answer: Take prescribed pain medications before a bowel movement is expected.

After the nurse has completed teaching a patient with newly diagnosed celiac disease, which breakfast choice by the patient indicates good understanding of the information?

After the nurse has completed teaching a patient with newly diagnosed celiac disease, which breakfast choice by the patient indicates good understanding of the information?

Answer: Corn tortilla with eggs

Which patient education will the nurse provide before discharge for a patient who has had a herniorrhaphy to repair an incarcerated inguinal hernia?

Which patient education will the nurse provide before discharge for a patient who has had a herniorrhaphy to repair an incarcerated inguinal hernia?

Answer: Apply a scrotal support and ice to reduce swelling.

When implementing the initial plan of care for a patient admitted with acute diverticulitis, the nurse will plan to

When implementing the initial plan of care for a patient admitted with acute diverticulitis, the nurse will plan to

Answer: administer IV fluids.

The nurse explains to a patient with a new ileostomy that after the bowel adjusts to the ileostomy, the usual drainage will be about

The nurse explains to a patient with a new ileostomy that after the bowel adjusts to the ileostomy, the usual drainage will be about

Answer: 2 cups.

After teaching a patient to irrigate a new colostomy, the nurse will determine that the teaching has been effective if the patient

After teaching a patient to irrigate a new colostomy, the nurse will determine that the teaching has been effective if the patient

Answer: hangs the irrigating container about 18 inches above the stoma.

A patient who has ulcerative colitis has a proctocolectomy and ileostomy. Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching?

A patient who has ulcerative colitis has a proctocolectomy and ileostomy. Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching?

Answer: Use care when eating high-fiber foods to avoid obstruction of the ileum.

During the initial postoperative assessment of a patient's stoma formed from a transverse colostomy, the nurse finds it to be deep pink with moderate edema and a small amount of bleeding. The nurse should

During the initial postoperative assessment of a patient's stoma formed from a transverse colostomy, the nurse finds it to be deep pink with moderate edema and a small amount of bleeding. The nurse should

Answer: document the stoma assessment.

Which nursing action is most important to include in the plan of care for a patient who had an abdominal-perineal resection the previous day?

Which nursing action is most important to include in the plan of care for a patient who had an abdominal-perineal resection the previous day?

Answer: Assess the perineal drainage and incision.

Before undergoing a colon resection for cancer of the colon, a patient has an elevated carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test. The nurse explains that the test is used to

Before undergoing a colon resection for cancer of the colon, a patient has an elevated carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test. The nurse explains that the test is used to

Answer: monitor the tumor status after surgery.

During preoperative preparation for a patient scheduled for an abdominal-perineal resection, the nurse will

During preoperative preparation for a patient scheduled for an abdominal-perineal resection, the nurse will

Answer: administer polyethylene glycol lavage solution (GoLYTELY) to ensure that the bowel is empty before the surgery.

When preparing for an annual physical exam for a patient who is 50 years old, the nurse will plan to teach the patient about

When preparing for an annual physical exam for a patient who is 50 years old, the nurse will plan to teach the patient about

Answer: colonoscopy.

A patient has a large bowel obstruction that occurred as a result of diverticulosis. When assessing the patient, the nurse will plan to monitor for

A patient has a large bowel obstruction that occurred as a result of diverticulosis. When assessing the patient, the nurse will plan to monitor for

Answer: abdominal distention.

A patient with Crohn's disease develops a fever and symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) with tan, fecal-smelling urine. The nurse will teach the patient

A patient with Crohn's disease develops a fever and symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) with tan, fecal-smelling urine. The nurse will teach the patient

Answer: about fistula formation between the bowel and bladder.

When caring for a patient who has a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease after having frequent diarrhea and a weight loss of 10 pounds (4.5 kg) over 2 months, the nurse will plan to teach the patient about

When caring for a patient who has a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease after having frequent diarrhea and a weight loss of 10 pounds (4.5 kg) over 2 months, the nurse will plan to teach the patient about

Answer: medication use.

A patient who has had a total proctocolectomy and permanent ileostomy tells the nurse, "I cannot bear to even look at the stoma. I do not think I can manage all these changes." Which is the best action by the nurse?

A patient who has had a total proctocolectomy and permanent ileostomy tells the nurse, "I cannot bear to even look at the stoma. I do not think I can manage all these changes." Which is the best action by the nurse?

Answer: Ask the patient more about the concerns with stoma management.

After the nurse has provided patient teaching about recommended dietary choices for a patient with an acute exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), which diet choice by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?

After the nurse has provided patient teaching about recommended dietary choices for a patient with an acute exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), which diet choice by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?

Answer: Oatmeal with cream

A patient who has an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is having 15 to 20 stools daily and has excoriated perianal skin. Which patient behavior indicates that teaching regarding maintenance of skin integrity has been effective?

A patient who has an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is having 15 to 20 stools daily and has excoriated perianal skin. Which patient behavior indicates that teaching regarding maintenance of skin integrity has been effective?

Answer: The patient uses witch hazel compresses to decrease anal irritation.

After the nurse has finished teaching a patient with ulcerative colitis about sulfasalazine (Azulfidine), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?

After the nurse has finished teaching a patient with ulcerative colitis about sulfasalazine (Azulfidine), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?

Answer: "I will need to use a sunscreen when I am outdoors."

Which nursing action will the nurse include in the plan of care when admitting a patient with an exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

Which nursing action will the nurse include in the plan of care when admitting a patient with an exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

Answer: Monitor stools for blood.

A patient hospitalized with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is having 14 to 16 bloody stools a day and crampy abdominal pain associated with the diarrhea. The nurse will plan to

A patient hospitalized with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is having 14 to 16 bloody stools a day and crampy abdominal pain associated with the diarrhea. The nurse will plan to

Answer: place the patient on NPO status.

Two days after an exploratory laparotomy with a resection of a short segment of small bowel, a patient complains of gas pains and abdominal distention. Which nursing action is best to take at this time?

Two days after an exploratory laparotomy with a resection of a short segment of small bowel, a patient complains of gas pains and abdominal distention. Which nursing action is best to take at this time?

Answer: Assist the patient to ambulate.

Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care for pt. with bowel irregularity and new dx of IBS?

Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care for pt. with bowel irregularity and new dx of IBS?

Answer: Encourage the pt to express feelings and ask questions about IBS.

A pt. is admitted to the hospital for eval of right lower quad pain with n/v. Which action should the nurse take?

A pt. is admitted to the hospital for eval of right lower quad pain with n/v. Which action should the nurse take?

Answer: Apply an ice pack to the right lower quad.

A pt. who has blunt abdominal trauma is complaining of severe pain. A peritoneal lavage returns brown drainage with fecal material. Which action will the nurse plan to take next?

A pt. who has blunt abdominal trauma is complaining of severe pain. A peritoneal lavage returns brown drainage with fecal material. Which action will the nurse plan to take next?

Answer: Prepare the pt for surgery.

A 23 yr. old woman who is being evaluated for acute lower abdominal pain and vomiting. Which question will be most useful in determining the cause of the pt's symptoms?

A 23 yr. old woman who is being evaluated for acute lower abdominal pain and vomiting. Which question will be most useful in determining the cause of the pt's symptoms?

Answer: "Can you tell me more about your pain?"

In teaching a pt. who has chronic constipation about the use of Metamucil, which info will the nurse include?

In teaching a pt. who has chronic constipation about the use of Metamucil, which info will the nurse include?

Answer: Lg. amounts of fluids should be taken to prevent impaction or bowel obstruction.

A 67 yr-old pt. tells the nurse, "I have problems w/constipation now that I am older, so I use suppository every morning." Which action should the nurse take first?

A 67 yr-old pt. tells the nurse, "I have problems w/constipation now that I am older, so I use suppository every morning." Which action should the nurse take first?

Answer: Assess the pt. about the individual risk factors for constipation.

A pt. who is hospitalized with watery, incontinent diarrhea is dx with C-diff. Which action will the nurse include in POC?

A pt. who is hospitalized with watery, incontinent diarrhea is dx with C-diff. Which action will the nurse include in POC?

Answer: Place the pt. in a private room w/contact isolation

Which of the following sweeteners should NOT be consumed by individuals with the disease phenylketonuria?

Which of the following sweeteners should NOT be consumed by individuals with the disease phenylketonuria?

A) sorbitol
B) sucralose
C) aspartame
D) saccharin


Answer: C) aspartame

Approximately how many kcalories are provided by one teaspoon of sugar?

Approximately how many kcalories are provided by one teaspoon of sugar?

A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40


Answer: B) 20

A 20-ounce bottle of a typical soft drink contains ____ teaspoons of sugar.

A 20-ounce bottle of a typical soft drink contains ____ teaspoons of sugar.

A) 6
B) 10
C) 14
D) 17


Answer: D) 17

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the type 2 diabetes?

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the type 2 diabetes?

A) It is more prevalent than type 1.
B) It is common in individuals who are overweight or obese.
C) It is an autoimmune disease.
D) It is often preceded by the insulin resistance.


Answer: C) It is an autoimmune disease.

The term Insulin resistance means that

The term Insulin resistance means that

A) the pancreas stops making the insulin.
B) the insulin receptors on the cells have stopped responding to insulin, therefore the glucose cannot enter the cells
C) ketone bodies build up in the blood.
D) blood glucose levels drop below normal.


Answer: B) the insulin receptors on the cells have stopped responding to insulin, therefore the glucose cannot enter the cells

What nutrient has accounted for virtually all of the increase in kCal intake of people in the United States since the 1970s leading marked increase in the obesity and resulting chronic diseases

What nutrient has accounted for virtually all of the increase in kCal intake of people in the United States since the 1970s leading marked increase in the obesity and resulting chronic diseases

A) fat
B) protein
C) alcohol
D) carbohydrate


Answer: D) carbohydrate

Excessive consumption of soft drinks, orange juice, and sports drinks increases the risk for the development of dental caries, because they contain sugar and _________.

Excessive consumption of soft drinks, orange juice, and sports drinks increases the risk for the development of dental caries, because they contain sugar and _________.

A) a low pH (acid)
B) organic bases (alkali)
C) resistant starch
D) insufficient fluoride


Answer: A) a low pH (acid)

All of the following contribute to the development of the dental caries except

All of the following contribute to the development of the dental caries except

A) dried fruits.
B) alcohol
C) hard candies.
D) starchy foods.


Answer: B) alcohol

In the time between the meals, which organ releases the glucose from the stores to help maintain the normal blood glucose levels?

In the time between the meals, which organ releases the glucose from the stores to help maintain the normal blood glucose levels?

A) liver
B) pancreas
C) intestines
D) skeletal muscle


Answer: A) liver

What is the primary function of the insulin?

What is the primary function of the insulin?

A) raising blood glucose levels
B) stimulating intestinal carbohydrate absorption
C) stimulating the glycogen breakdown
D) lowering the blood glucose levels by transferring it into the body cells for its metabolism


Answer: D) lowering the blood glucose levels by transferring it into the body cells for its metabolism

What is a normal range (mg/d) for the fasting blood glucose?

What is a normal range (mg/d) for the fasting blood glucose?

A) 60-70
B) 70-109
C) 100-119
D) 120 -139


Answer: B) 70-109

What is the minimum daily amount of dietary carbohydrate necessary to spare the body protein from an excessive breakdown?

What is the minimum daily amount of dietary carbohydrate necessary to spare the body protein from an excessive breakdown?

A) 50-100 g
B) 100-150 g
C) 150-200 g
D) 200-250 g


Answer: A) 50-100 g

What is the RDA for the carbohydrates?

What is the RDA for the carbohydrates?

A) 10 g
B) 45 g
C) 130 g
D) 250 g


Answer: C) 130 g

What is the minimum Adequate Intake (AI) of fiber for adults per day?

What is the minimum Adequate Intake (AI) of fiber for adults per day?

A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 30


Answer: C) 25

Bacteria in the colon can break apart some dietary fibers into

Bacteria in the colon can break apart some dietary fibers into

A) glucose.
B) short-chain fatty acids.
C) amino acids.
D) glycogen


Answer: B) short-chain fatty acids

Which of the following fibers is not water soluble?

Which of the following fibers is not water soluble?

A) gums
B) pectins
C) cellulose
D) mucilages


Answer: C) cellulose

A person eating lots of white bread, white rice, and ready-to-eat cereals would have a diet with a glycemic index that is ____.

A person eating lots of white bread, white rice, and ready-to-eat cereals would have a diet with a glycemic index that is ____.

A) very high
B) low
C) moderate
D) high


Answer: D) high

All of the following are symptoms of the hypoglycemia except

All of the following are symptoms of the hypoglycemia except

A) light-headedness.
B) Confusion
C) hunger.
D) diarrhea.


Answer: D) diarrhea.

When blood glucose concentration falls, what hormone is secreted to stimulate release of stored glucose from the liver?

When blood glucose concentration falls, what hormone is secreted to stimulate release of stored glucose from the liver?

A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) epinephrine
D) cortisone


Answer: B) glucagon

The hormone glucagon from the pancreas acts on the liver to stimulate

The hormone glucagon from the pancreas acts on the liver to stimulate

A) lipogenesis.
B) gluconeogenesis.
C) glycogenolysis.
D) glycolysis.


Answer: C) glycogenolysis

When glycogen stores are full, excess glucose is converted to ________ in the process of lipogenesis.

When glycogen stores are full, excess glucose is converted to ________ in the process of lipogenesis.

A) triglycerides
B) amino acids
C) starch
D) protein


Answer: A) triglycerides

What is the primary function of the carbohydrate in human body?

What is the primary function of the carbohydrate in human body?

A) to encourage muscle growth
B) to lower blood glucose
C) to strengthen bones
D) to provide the energy


Answer: D) to provide the energy

What effect do the ketone bodies have on the blood pH?

What effect do the ketone bodies have on the blood pH?

A) decrease blood pH
B) increase blood pH
C) neutralize blood pH
D) have no effect on blood pH


Answer: A) decrease blood pH

Gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of

Gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of

A) amino acids from the glucose
B) glucose from a non-carbohydrate substance
C) fat from the excess carbohydrate intake
D) glycogen from glucagon


Answer: B) glucose from a non-carbohydrate substance

The enzymes that hydrolyze the disaccharides into the monosaccharides are found in the ____.

The enzymes that hydrolyze the disaccharides into the monosaccharides are found in the ____.

A) small intestine
B) pancreas
C)saliva
D) colon


Answer: A) small intestine

In which of the following tissues is glycogen typically stored?

In which of the following tissues is glycogen typically stored?

A) muscle and liver
B) pancreas and kidneys
C) stomach and intestine
D) brain and red blood cells


Answer: A) muscle and liver

What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the human or animal body?

What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the human or animal body?

A) fiber
B) starch
C) glucagon
D) glycogen


Answer: D) glycogen

Once absorbed, all the monosaccharides are converted to ________ by the liver.

Once absorbed, all the monosaccharides are converted to ________ by the liver.

A) glucose
B) fructose
C) galactose
D) maltose

Answer: A) glucose

The majority of the carbohydrate digestion occurs in the

The majority of the carbohydrate digestion occurs in the

A) mouth.
B) stomach.
C) small intestine.
D) colon.


Answer: C) small intestine

The enzyme salivary amylase breaks down

The enzyme salivary amylase breaks down

A) fiber.
B) maltose.
C) disaccharides.
D) amylose and amylopectin


Answer: D) amylose and amylopectin

The storage form of the glucose in the plants is

The storage form of the glucose in the plants is

A) glycogen.
B) starch.
C) maltose.
D) lactose

Answer: B) starch

All of the following are symptoms of the lactose intolerance except

All of the following are symptoms of the lactose intolerance except

A) bloating.
B) skin rash.
C) cramps.
D) flatulence


Answer: B) skin rash.

Which of the following enzymes is lacking or insufficient in an individual with the lactose intolerance?

Which of the following enzymes is lacking or insufficient in an individual with the lactose intolerance?

A) lactase
B) galactase
C) amylase
D) sucrose


Answer: A) lactase

Of the following dairy foods, which has the least amount of the lactose?

Of the following dairy foods, which has the least amount of the lactose?

A) whole milk
B) yogurt
C) cheddar cheese
D) ice cream


Answer: C) cheddar cheese

All of the following are health benefits of soluble fiber except

All of the following are health benefits of soluble fiber except

A) normalizes blood glucose
B) reduces serum cholesterol.
C) delays gastric emptying.
D) stimulates appetite.


Answer: D) stimulates appetite.

The storage form of glucose in humans and animals is

The storage form of glucose in humans and animals is

A) glycogen.
B) amylose.
C) starch.
D) polysaccharide.


Answer: A) glycogen

Which of the following sugars is a disaccharide?

Which of the following sugars is a disaccharide?

A) glucose
B) galactose
C) fructose
D) lactose


Answer: D) lactose

What is the composition of the sucrose?

What is the composition of the sucrose?

A) two fructose molecules
B) one glucose and one fructose molecules
C) one glucose and one galactose molecules
D) one galactose and one fructose molecules


Answer: B) one glucose and one fructose molecules

Which of the following sugars is the sweetest tasting?

Which of the following sugars is the sweetest tasting?

A) galactose
B) fructose
C) glucose
D) maltose


Answer: B) fructose

Which substance is known as the blood sugar or dextrose?

Which substance is known as the blood sugar or dextrose?

A) glucose
B) sucrose
C) fructose
D) lactose


Answer: A) glucose

What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together?

What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together?

A) hydrolysis
B) absorption
C) disaccharide
D) condensation


Answer: D) condensation

Glucose, fructose, and galactose all have how many atoms of carbon?

Glucose, fructose, and galactose all have how many atoms of carbon?

A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12


Answer: A) 6

A person with a severe diarrhea is at the risk of becoming dehydrated.

A person with a severe diarrhea is at the risk of becoming dehydrated.

A) True
B) False


Answer: A) True

Both water-soluble and fat-soluble nutrients are transported via the same system from the small intestine.

Both water-soluble and fat-soluble nutrients are transported via the same system from the small intestine.

A) True
B) False


Answer: B) False

Endocytosis allows whole proteins, such as immunoglobulins from breast milk, to be absorbed intact.

Endocytosis allows whole proteins, such as immunoglobulins from breast milk, to be absorbed intact.

A) True
B) False


Answer: A) True

All absorbed food has to pass through the liver before it is supplied to the cells via circulation

All absorbed food has to pass through the liver before it is supplied to the cells via circulation

A) True
B) False


Answer: B) False

Chemical digestion does not occur in the stomach; only mechanical events occur.

Chemical digestion does not occur in the stomach; only mechanical events occur.

A) True
B) False


Answer: B) False

Treatment for the chronic constipation includes all of the following except

Treatment for the chronic constipation includes all of the following except

A) a high-fiber diet.
B) regular exercise.
C) taking laxatives daily
D) a high-liquid diet.


Answer: C) Taking laxatives daily

People who have frequent bouts of heartburn and indigestion may have a medical condition known as the ____.

People who have frequent bouts of heartburn and indigestion may have a medical condition known as the ____.

A) colitis
B) nausea
C) malabsorption
D) gastroesophageal reflux disease


Answer: D) Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Which of the following risk factors is associated with the gallbladder disease?

Which of the following risk factors is associated with the gallbladder disease?

A) alcoholism
B) hypertension
C) obesity
D) diabetes


Answer: C) Obesity

Which action is associated with the presence of the fat in the GI tract?

Which action is associated with the presence of the fat in the GI tract?

A) Inhibition of mucosal enzyme activities
B) Slowing of the process of the digestion and absorption
C) Inhibition of the vitamin absorption
D) Stimulation and hastening of the digestion and absorption


Answer: B) Slowing of the process of the digestion and absorption

What hormone controls the release of bile into the small intestine?

What hormone controls the release of bile into the small intestine?

A) Gastrin
B) Secretin
C) Insulin
D) Cholecystokinin


Answer: D) Cholecystokinin

The presence of fat in the intestines stimulates cells of the intestinal wall to release ____.

The presence of fat in the intestines stimulates cells of the intestinal wall to release ____.

A) lipase
B) secretin
C) cholecystokinin
D) glucagon


Answer: C) Cholecystokinin

Which substance stimulates the pancreas to release the bicarbonate-rich juice?

Which substance stimulates the pancreas to release the bicarbonate-rich juice?

A) Gastrin
B) Secretin
C) Gastric-inhibitory peptide
D) Cholecystokinin


Answer: B) Secretin

Which hormone regulates the pH of the stomach?

Which hormone regulates the pH of the stomach?

A) Gastrin
B) Insulin
C) Secretin
D) Cholecystokinin


Answer: A) Gastrin

What two systems coordinate all the digestive/absorptive processes?

What two systems coordinate all the digestive/absorptive processes?

A) Enzyme and hormonal
B) Portal and lymphatic
C) Nervous and endocrine
D) Transport and circulatory


Answer: C) Nervous and endocrine

When consumed on a regular basis, which food promotes healthful changes in the microflora of the GI tract?

When consumed on a regular basis, which food promotes healthful changes in the microflora of the GI tract?

A) Fish
B) Yogurt
C) Poultry
D) Natural sugars


Answer: B) Yogurt

Certain types of fibers and other food components that are degraded by GI tract bacteria are called ____.

Certain types of fibers and other food components that are degraded by GI tract bacteria are called ____.

A) prebiotics
B) probiotics
C) postbiotics
D) symbiotics


Answer: A) Prebiotics

What is the most metabolically active organ?

What is the most metabolically active organ?

A) Brain
B) Stomach
C) Pancreas
D) Liver


Answer: D) Liver

Water-soluble nutrients are carried to the liver from the intestine via which of the following?

Water-soluble nutrients are carried to the liver from the intestine via which of the following?

A) lymphatic vessel
B) hepatic vein
C) aorta
D) hepatic portal vein


Answer: D) Hepatic portal vein

Which hormone plays a role in producing the hunger?

Which hormone plays a role in producing the hunger?

A) PYY
B) ghrelin
C) gastrin
D) secretin


Answer: B) Ghrelin

______ causes the pancreas to release lipase and the gallbladder to contract and release bile.

______ causes the pancreas to release lipase and the gallbladder to contract and release bile.

A) Cholecystokinin
B) GIP
C) Gastrin
D) Secretin


Answer: A) Cholecystokinin

The release of the bicarbonate ions by the pancreas is stimulated by the hormone

The release of the bicarbonate ions by the pancreas is stimulated by the hormone

A) gastrin.
B) GIP.
C) secretin.
D) cholecystokinin

Answer: C) Secretin

To assist the process of the optimum digestion and absorption, it is usually best to ____.

To assist the process of the optimum digestion and absorption, it is usually best to ____.

A) eat several snacks per day so the system is not overwhelmed
B) avoid eating meat and fruit at the same meal to prevent indigestion
C) combine different food types to enhance the absorption process
D) eat only one type of food at each meal in order to assist the digestion


Answer: C) Combine different food types to enhance the absorption process

The process in the small intestine in which a cell forms a vesicle to surround and engulf a nutrient is called

The process in the small intestine in which a cell forms a vesicle to surround and engulf a nutrient is called

A) passive diffusion.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) active transport.
D) endocytosis.


Answer: D) Endocytosis.

What is the primary site for the absorption of the nutrients?

What is the primary site for the absorption of the nutrients?

A) Crypt
B) Cecum
C) Microvillus
D) Goblet cells


Answer: C) Microvillus

What is the name of the projections on the inner surface of the small intestine?

What is the name of the projections on the inner surface of the small intestine?

A) Villi
B) Cilia
C) Lacteals
D) Vascular projections


Answer: A) Villi

Which of the following statements best describes the enterohepatic circulation?

Which of the following statements best describes the enterohepatic circulation?

A) It is the movement of fat-soluble vitamins from intestine to liver.
B) It is the recycling of bile between intestine and liver.
C) It is the movement of all nutrients from intestine to liver.
D) It is the circulation of nutrients through the blood.


Answer: B) It is the recycling of bile between intestine and liver.

Mucus production in the gastrointestinal tract

Mucus production in the gastrointestinal tract

A) activates the enzymes.
B) maintains the appropriate pH for enzyme action.
C) lubricate the food, and coat mucous membrane to protect against chemical damage
D) initiates the process of digestion


Answer: C) Lubricate the food, and coat mucous membrane to protect against chemical damage

Enzyme Pepsin is active in the

Enzyme Pepsin is active in the

A) mouth.
B) stomach.
C) small intestine.
D) large intestine.


Answer: B) Stomach

The majority of the digestive enzymes are produced in the

The majority of the digestive enzymes are produced in the

A) pancreas.
B) stomach.
C) liver.
D) mouth.


Answer: A) Pancreas

The compound that an enzyme has a specificity for is called the

The compound that an enzyme has a specificity for is called the

A) product.
B) inhibitor.
C) catalyst.
D) substrate.


Answer: D) Substrate.

What is the function of the bile?

What is the function of the bile?

A) It initiates digestion of protein.
B) It emulsifies fats.
C) It enhances absorption of complex carbohydrates.
D) It stimulates the absorption of vitamins and minerals.


Answer: B) It emulsifies fats.

The function of the gallbladder is to ____.

The function of the gallbladder is to ____.

A) store and concentrate the bile and release it when appropriate signal is received
B) produce bile
C) absorb water and salts from the chyme
D) perform the enzymatic digestion


Answer: A) Store and concentrate the bile and release it when appropriate signal is received

The purpose of bicarbonate in the digestive process is to ____.

The purpose of bicarbonate in the digestive process is to ____.

A) increase peristalsis
B) lower the pH of chyme making it more acidic
C) hydrolyze large peptides
D) to neutralize the acidity of the chyme and make it alkaline by raising its pH


Answer: D) To neutralize the acidity of the chyme and make it alkaline by raising its pH

Where do both peristalsis and segmentation occur?

Where do both peristalsis and segmentation occur?

A) esophagus
B) stomach
C) small intestine
D) large intestine


Answer: C) Small intestine

Which of the following is a true statement about the peristalsis?

Which of the following is a true statement about the peristalsis?

A) It occurs when longitudinal muscles oppose the action of transverse muscles.
B) Its rate is consistent throughout the GI tract.
C) It occurs in the small intestine but not at all in the colon.
D) It is caused by alternate tightening and relaxing of the circular and longitudinal muscles in wall of GI tract organs, propelling the food forward


Answer: D) It is caused by alternate tightening and relaxing of the circular and longitudinal muscles in wall of GI tract organs, propelling the food forward

Intestinal gas is usually produced a result of the

Intestinal gas is usually produced a result of the

A) bacterial fermentation of the complex carbohydrates.
B) the action of bile.
C) stomach acid fermentation.
D) too much fat in the diet


Answer: A) Bacterial fermentation of the complex carbohydrates.

What is primarily absorbed from the chyme in the large intestine?

What is primarily absorbed from the chyme in the large intestine?

A) lipids
B) vitamins
C) fiber
D) water and electrolytes


Answer: D) Water and electrolytes

What structure separates the colon from the small intestine?

What structure separates the colon from the small intestine?

A) Pylorus
B) Ileocecal valve
C) lower sphincter
D) Sigmoid sphincter


Answer: B) Ileocecal valve

What is the name given to the partially digested food in the stomach?

What is the name given to the partially digested food in the stomach?

A) Chyme
B) Gastric contents
C) Semiliquid food
D) Bolus


Answer: A) Chyme

One function of the pyloric sphincter is to ____.

One function of the pyloric sphincter is to ____.

A) secretes acid into the stomach
B) keeps the food in the stomach until it partially digested and prevents the contents of the small intestine from backing up into the stomach
C) prevents the contents of the small intestine from emptying too quickly into the colon
D)initiates peristalsis


Answer: B) Keeps the food in the stomach until it partially digested and prevents the contents of the small intestine from backing up into the stomach

What best describes the normal pH of the stomach?

What best describes the normal pH of the stomach?

A) Very acidic
B) Slightly acidic
C) Neutral
D) Slightly alkaline


Answer: A) Very acidic

What is the role of a sphincter in the GI tract?

What is the role of a sphincter in the GI tract?

A) It stimulates enzyme production.
B) It regulates the forward directional flow of the gastrointestinal contents.
C) It is a longitudinal muscle that helps segment food.
D) It prevents the movement of food into the trachea.


Answer: B) It regulates the forward directional flow of the gastrointestinal contents.

What structure functions to prevent entrance of food into the trachea and choking?

What structure functions to prevent entrance of food into the trachea and choking?

A) Tongue
B) Cardiac or lower esophageal sphincter
C) Epiglottis
D) Upper esophageal sphincter


Answer: C) Epiglottis

What is a bolus?

What is a bolus?

A) A food item that has passed through the small intestine into the colon
B) A portion of soft food swallowed at one time
C) A device used to analyze the contents of the stomach
D) A sphincter muscle separating the stomach from the small intestine


Answer: B) A portion of soft food swallowed at one time

The process by which food is broken down into the absorbable components is called ____.

The process by which food is broken down into the absorbable components is called ____.

A) digestion
B) absorption
C) deglutition
D) mastication


Answer: A) Digestion

According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, one should consume less than 10 percent of kilocalories from the saturated fat.

According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, one should consume less than 10 percent of kilocalories from the saturated fat.

A) True
B) False


Answer: A) True

The Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) uses Adequate Intake (AI) when there is insufficient evidence to calculate the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for a specific nutrient.

The Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) uses Adequate Intake (AI) when there is insufficient evidence to calculate the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for a specific nutrient.

A) True
B) False


Answer: A) True

The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) is the average amount of a nutrient that will most likely cause toxicity symptoms.

The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) is the average amount of a nutrient that will most likely cause toxicity symptoms.

A) True
B) False


Answer: B) False

When there is insufficient data to establish an Estimated Average Requirement (EAR), the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) cannot be calculated.

When there is insufficient data to establish an Estimated Average Requirement (EAR), the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) cannot be calculated.

A) True
B) False


Answer: A) True

Foods that are high in both kilocalories and nutrients are categorized as nutrient-dense foods.

Foods that are high in both kilocalories and nutrients are categorized as nutrient-dense foods.

A) True
B) False


Answer: A) True

Nutrient-dense foods are low in fat and added sugar and high in kilocalories.

Nutrient-dense foods are low in fat and added sugar and high in kilocalories.

A) True
B) False


Answer: B) False

Reasons for the unintentional weight gain include all of the following except

Reasons for the unintentional weight gain include all of the following except

A) the food industry's increase in portion size.
B) portion distortion.
C) more Americans eating at home rather than eating out.
D) Americans being offered a variety of sizes and flavors at inexpensive prices.


Answer: C) More Americans eating at home rather than eating out.

When a product label says that a product is a "good source of" a particular nutrient, the food contains at least ____ percent of the Daily Value (DV) for that particular nutrient per serving.

When a product label says that a product is a "good source of" a particular nutrient, the food contains at least ____ percent of the Daily Value (DV) for that particular nutrient per serving.

A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20


Answer: B) 10

A nutrition label will refer to an item as "reduced fat" when the food contains at least ________ percent less fat per serving than the regular variety.

A nutrition label will refer to an item as "reduced fat" when the food contains at least ________ percent less fat per serving than the regular variety.

A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25


Answer: D) 25

For a serving of a particular food to be considered high in a certain nutrient, the item must contain at least what percentage of the nutrient's Daily Value (DV)?

For a serving of a particular food to be considered high in a certain nutrient, the item must contain at least what percentage of the nutrient's Daily Value (DV)?

A) 20 percent
B) 10 percent
C) 18 percent
D) 15 percent


Answer: A) 20 percent

The "% Daily Value" column on a food table indicates whether a food

The "% Daily Value" column on a food table indicates whether a food

A) is high or low in nutrients and other dietary substances.
B) is energy dense or nutrient dense.
C) meets Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) values.
D) falls within the Average Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR).


Answer: A) Is high or low in nutrients and other dietary substances.

The Daily Values on a food label are based on a

The Daily Values on a food label are based on a

A) 2,800-kilocalorie diet.
B) 1,800-kilocalorie diet.
C) 2,100-kilocalorie diet.
D) 2,000-kilocalorie diet.


Answer: D) 2,000-kilocalorie diet.

The area on the food label that provides a list of specific nutrients obtained in one serving of the food is referred to as the

The area on the food label that provides a list of specific nutrients obtained in one serving of the food is referred to as the

A) Nutrition Facts panel.
B) Nutrition Information panel.
C) Nutrients list panel.
D) Daily Values panel.


Answer: A) Nutrition Facts panel.

What agency is responsible for the development of Daily Values (DVs)?

What agency is responsible for the development of Daily Values (DVs)?

A) DRI
B) FDA
C) CDC
D) USD


Answer: B) FDA

Exchange lists group the foods together based on their nutrient content in each of the following areas except

Exchange lists group the foods together based on their nutrient content in each of the following areas except

A) vitamins.
B) carbohydrates.
C) protein.
D) fat.


Answer: A) Vitamins.

The exchange lists for meal planning were designed in 1970's to help people with which chronic illness?

The exchange lists for meal planning were designed in 1970's to help people with which chronic illness?

A) heart disease
B) asthma
C) diabetes
D) cancer


Answer: C) Diabetes

Nutrition researchers calculate satiety ratios and values by examining the

Nutrition researchers calculate satiety ratios and values by examining the

A) size of the meal based on the time between meals.
B) time between meals based on the size of previous meal.
C) size of meal based on DRIs.
D) size of meal based on weight.


Answer: B) Time between meals based on the size of previous meal.

Which of the following nutrition messages is conveyed in MyPlate?

Which of the following nutrition messages is conveyed in MyPlate?

A) Enjoy your food and eat as much as you like.
B) Foods within each category can be exchanged with another from the same group.
C) Drink whole milk.
D) Fill half your plate fruit and vegetables.


Answer: D) Fill half your plate fruit and vegetables.

The principle of the proportionality in MyPlate is represented by

The principle of the proportionality in MyPlate is represented by

A) reducing portion sizes to support weight loss.
B) promoting larger portions for active people.
C) showing the relative proportion of the foods in a healthy diet.
D) indicating portion sizes for different age groups.


Answer: C) Showing the relative proportion of the foods in a healthy diet.

The different-colored sections on MyPlate are used to represent

The different-colored sections on MyPlate are used to represent

A) food groups.
B) nutrient density
C) energy density.
D) serving/portion sizes.


Answer: A) Food groups

ChooseMyPlate.gov is a Web-based communication and education initiative developed by the

ChooseMyPlate.gov is a Web-based communication and education initiative developed by the

A) FDA.
B) FCC.
C) USDA.
D) DOE.


Answer: C) USDA.

Tara takes a brisk 45-minute walk most days of the week. What level of physical activity best describes Tara's workouts?

Tara takes a brisk 45-minute walk most days of the week. What level of physical activity best describes Tara's workouts?

A) sedentary
B) moderate
C) vigorous
D) intense


Answer: B) Moderate

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans includes all of the following goals except

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans includes all of the following goals except

A) balancing kilocalories to manage weight.
B) reducing certain foods and food components.
C) building healthy eating patterns.
D) increasing the protein intake.

Answer: D) Increasing the protein intake

Since 1990, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) have mandated that the Dietary Guidelines for Americans be updated every

Since 1990, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) have mandated that the Dietary Guidelines for Americans be updated every

A) four years.
B) ten years.
C) five years.
D) seven years.


Answer: C) Five years.

What is the AMDR (Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges) for the fat?

What is the AMDR (Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges) for the fat?

A) 10-30%
B) 20-35%
C) 40-50%
D) 55-65%


Answer: B) 20-35%

What is the AMDR (Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges) for the protein?

What is the AMDR (Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges) for the protein?

A) 10-35%
B) 40-45%
C) 50-60%
D) 65-75%


Answer: A) 10-35%

What is the AMDR (Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges) for the carbohydrate?

What is the AMDR (Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges) for the carbohydrate?

A) 5-10%
B) 15-25%
C) 30-40%
D) 45-65%


Answer: D) 45-65%

The percentages of the kCalorie intakes for protein, fat, and carbohydrate that are thought to be appropriate reduce the risk of the chronic diseases are known as the ____.

The percentages of the kCalorie intakes for protein, fat, and carbohydrate that are thought to be appropriate reduce the risk of the chronic diseases are known as the ____.

A) Estimated Energy Requirements
B) Tolerable Range of Kilocalorie Intakes
C) Estimated Energy Nutrient Recommendations
D) Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR)


Answer: D) Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR)

What does the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of a nutrient represent?

What does the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of a nutrient represent?

A) The maximum amount allowed for fortifying a food
B) The maximum amount from all sources that appears safe for most of the healthy people
C) The maximum allowable amount available in supplement form
D) The maximum amount that can be absorbed from a typical diet.


Answer: B) The maximum amount from all sources that appears safe for most of the healthy people

The Estimated Energy Requirement (EER) is a calculation based on all of the following except

The Estimated Energy Requirement (EER) is a calculation based on all of the following except

A) ethnicity/race.
B) age.
C) gender.
D) height.


Answer: A) Ethnicity/race

For a sedentary female aged 19 to 25, the average amount of the kilocalories needed daily is

For a sedentary female aged 19 to 25, the average amount of the kilocalories needed daily is

A) 1,700.
B) 2,200.
C) 1,800.
D) 2,000.


Answer: D) 2,000.

The amount of energy one needs daily, to maintain a healthy body weight and the body's functions is called the

The amount of energy one needs daily, to maintain a healthy body weight and the body's functions is called the

A) Estimated Energy Expenditure (EEE).
B) Estimated Energy Requirement (EER).
C) Daily Energy Allowance (DEA).
D) Average Energy Requirement (AER).


Answer: B) Estimated Energy Requirement (EER).

What is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake?

What is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake?

A) Setting the nutrient goals for individuals
B) Identifying the toxic intakes of nutrients
C) Restoring the health of malnourished individuals
D) Developing nutrition programs for the schoolchildren


Answer: A) Setting the nutrient goals for individuals

The RDAs (Recommended Dietary Allowances) for nutrients are generally ____.

The RDAs (Recommended Dietary Allowances) for nutrients are generally ____.

A) reflects the current dietary preferences
B) the minimum amounts that average people need
C) designed to meet the needs of almost all healthy people
D) designed to prevent deficiency diseases in half the population


Answer: C) Designed to meet the needs of almost all healthy people

The calculations of the Recommended Dietary Allowances are based on the ____.

The calculations of the Recommended Dietary Allowances are based on the ____.

A) Lower Tolerable Limit
B) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
C) Upper Tolerable Limit
D) Adequate Intake


Answer: B) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)

A group of people consumes an amount of the protein equal to only the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for their population group. What percentage of the people will receive insufficient amounts?

A group of people consumes an amount of the protein equal to only the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for their population group. What percentage of the people will receive insufficient amounts?

A) 10
B) 25
C) 40
D) 50


Answer: D) 50

When no RDA is established for a nutrient, which of the following reference value is used as the alternative?

When no RDA is established for a nutrient, which of the following reference value is used as the alternative?

A) UL
B) EER
C) EAR
D) AI


Answer: D) Al

The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of about 98% of a population is known as the

The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of about 98% of a population is known as the

A. Adequate Intake.
B. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
C. Tolerable Upper Intake Level.
D. Necessary and Sufficient Intake


Answer: B) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

The Dietary Reference Intakes may be used to ____.

The Dietary Reference Intakes may be used to ____.

A) treat people with the diet-related disorders
B) diagnose and treat the simple malnutrition
C) plan and evaluate the diets for healthy people
D) assess adequacy of only the kCalories


Answer: C) Plan and evaluate the diets for healthy people

Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are

Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are

A) recommendations set for the weight loss.
B) nutrient intake recommendations based on the individual groups
C) recommendations of the nutrient needs based on the socioeconomic status.
D) nutrient recommendations based on the population groups


Answer: B) Nutrient intake recommendations based on individual groups

What are the energy-dense foods?

What are the energy-dense foods?

A) foods that are low in nutrients and high in energy
B) foods that are high in nutrients but low in kilocalories
C) foods high in kilocalories and low in volume/weight
D) foods high in nutrients and high in kilocalories


Answer: B) Foods that are high in nutrients but low in kilocalories

Which of the following is an example of a "nutrient-dense" food?

Which of the following is an example of a "nutrient-dense" food?

A) packaged snack foods
B) broccoli
C) potato chips
D) sweets


Answer: B) Broccoli

A diet consisting of only the meat and potatoes would be considered

A diet consisting of only the meat and potatoes would be considered

A) adequate.
B) balanced.
C) unbalanced.
D) substantial.


Answer: C) Unbalanced

Which of the following is not a key factor of healthy eating in U.S.?

Which of the following is not a key factor of healthy eating in U.S.?

A) availability of the food
B) balance
C) variety
D) moderation


Answer: A) Availability for food

In conducting experimental research, the purpose of having a control group is to?

In conducting experimental research, the purpose of having a control group is to?

A. increase the sample size.
B. be able to improve variability within a sample.
C. be able to observe multiple effects at the same time.
D. provide a standard for comparison with the treated group.


Answer: D) Provide a standard for comparison with the treated group.

What is the scientific method?

What is the scientific method?

A. a research question that is raised by a group of scientists
B. a careful process of gathering and testing information to further research
C. an explanation of the research findings of a group of scientists
D. a method to teach students science in high school


Answer: B) A careful process of gathering and testing information to further research.

Which of the following describes the fiber intake in the current American diet?

Which of the following describes the fiber intake in the current American diet?

A. Most Americans consume daily recommended dietary fiber
B. Most Americans consume too much soluble fiber and not enough insoluble fiber.
C. Americans consume too much fiber because of excess fruits and vegetables intake.
D. Americans consume too little fiber because of too many refined foods and too few fruits and vegetables


Answer: D) Americans consume too little fiber because of too many refined foods and too few fruits and vegetables

Which statement best describes the current status of the American diet?

Which statement best describes the current status of the American diet?

A. Americans consume too much cholesterol and too little protein.
B. Americans consume too much saturated fat, sodium, and sugar and too little fiber.
C. Americans consume too much protein and too little sodium and fiber.
D. Americans consume too many vitamins and minerals and too little saturated fat


Answer: B) Americans consume too much saturated fat, sodium, and sugar and too little fiber

What does an individual's BMI measure?

What does an individual's BMI measure?

A. waist-to-hip ratio
B. nutrient deficiencies
C. blood sugar levels
D. weight relative to height


Answer: D) Weight relative to height

Which one of the following diet assessment methods can provide an accurate estimate of a person's typical food intake?

Which one of the following diet assessment methods can provide an accurate estimate of a person's typical food intake?

A. daily food intake diary for 2 weeks
B. food frequency questionnaire
C. last 24-hour dietary recall
D. anthropometric measurements


Answer: A) Daily food intake diary for 2 weeks

The Framingham Heart Study revealed the connection between the heart disease and?

The Framingham Heart Study revealed the connection between the heart disease and?

A. smoking.
B. alcohol consumption.
C. cholesterol levels.
D. saturated fat.


Answer: C) Cholesterol levels

The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) was established in order to:

The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) was established in order to:

A. make people responsible for what they eat.
B. determine the nutritional status of the population and to monitor risk
behaviors over time.
C. make nutrition research accessible to the population.
D. eradicate disease risks by making personal dietary recommendations.


Answer: B) Determine the nutritional status of the population and to monitor risk behaviors over time.

One of the early signs of cardiovascular disease is an increase in the blood cholesterol level. The best tool to detect this change would be?

One of the early signs of cardiovascular disease is an increase in the blood cholesterol level. The best tool to detect this change would be?

A. anthropometric measurement.
B. physical examination.
C. laboratory tests.
D. dietary analysis.


Answer: C) Labratory tests

Which of the following leading causes of death in the United States is related to the nutritional choices?

Which of the following leading causes of death in the United States is related to the nutritional choices?

A. heart disease
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. kidney disease
D. respiratory disease


Answer: A) Heart disease

Non-nutrient substances found in the plant foods that may demonstrate a biological activity in the body, are commonly known as?

Non-nutrient substances found in the plant foods that may demonstrate a biological activity in the body, are commonly known as?

A. inorganic fibers
B. nonnutritive additives
C. phytochemicals
D. zoochemicals


Answer: C) Phytochemicals

Which of the following may possess health benefits due to naturally occurring phytochemicals?

Which of the following may possess health benefits due to naturally occurring phytochemicals?

A. table salt
B. refined sugar
C. vegetables
D. food coloring


Answer: C) Vegetables

Which of the following can be classified as a functional food?

Which of the following can be classified as a functional food?

A. vitamin supplements
B. orange juice fortified with calcium
C. baked potato
D. fruits


Answer: B) Orange juice fortified with calcium

Regulation of the energy metabolism is a key function of?

Regulation of the energy metabolism is a key function of?

A. vitamins.
B. fiber.
C. phytochemicals.
D. caffeine.


Answer: A) Vitamins

Vitamins and minerals are considered?

Vitamins and minerals are considered?

A. micronutrients.
B. macronutrients.
C. phytochemicals.
D. coenzymes.


Answer: Micronutrients

Which of the following classes of nutrients functions as a coenzyme or cofactors for the enzyme activity?

Which of the following classes of nutrients functions as a coenzyme or cofactors for the enzyme activity?

A. protein
B. carbohydrates
C. lipids
D. minerals


Answer: D) Minerals

Which of the following statements is NOT true about minerals?

Which of the following statements is NOT true about minerals?

A. They are organic.
B. They are essential.
C. They are important in the structure of bones and teeth.
D. They play a role in the maintenance of fluid balance.


Answer: A) They are organic

Which of the following is a macronutrient?

Which of the following is a macronutrient?

A. vitamins
B. lipids
C. enzymes
D. minerals


Answer: B) Lipids

The element that is uniquely found in all the proteins and some vitamins is

The element that is uniquely found in all the proteins and some vitamins is

A. carbon.
B. hydrogen.
C. oxygen.
D. nitrogen.


Answer: D) Nitrogen

The consumption of the excess kilocalories results in the accumulation of ______ in the body

The consumption of the excess kilocalories results in the accumulation of ______ in the body

A. carbohydrates.
B. protein.
C. fat.
D. fluid.


Answer: C) Fat

Which of the following are the essential nutrients?

Which of the following are the essential nutrients?

A. lipids
B. zoochemicals
C. soluble and insoluble fibers
D. phytochemicals


Answer: A) Lipids

The term organic in chemistry, as related to the chemical compounds, would be best defined as the ____.

The term organic in chemistry, as related to the chemical compounds, would be best defined as the ____.

A. products sold at the health food stores
B. products grown without the use of pesticides
C. foods having superior nutrient qualities
D. substances with the carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds


Answer: D) Substances with the carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds

What type of nutrient cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body but is needed for normal health and must be obtained from the foods?

What type of nutrient cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body but is needed for normal health and must be obtained from the foods?

A. nutraceutical.
B. metabolic nutrient
C. organic nutrient
D. essential nutrient


Answer: D) Essential nutrient

Which of the following is inorganic?

Which of the following is inorganic?

A. carbohydrates
B. lipids
C. water
D. vitamins


Answer: C) Water

Organic nutrients include all of the following except

Organic nutrients include all of the following except

A. proteins.
B. minerals.
C. vitamins.
D. carbohydrates.


Answer: B) Minerals

The most abundant nutrient in the body and in almost all foods is?

The most abundant nutrient in the body and in almost all foods is?

A. water.
B. carbohydrate.
C. fat.
D. protein.


Answer: A) Water

A child develops a strong dislike of noodle soup after she consumes a bowl while sick with the flu. Her reaction is an example of a food-related:

A child develops a strong dislike of noodle soup after she consumes a bowl while sick with the flu. Her reaction is an example of a food-related:

A. habit
B. social interaction
C. emotional turmoil
D. negative association


Answer: D) Negative association

The most important factor that influences the food choice is

The most important factor that influences the food choice is

A. culture.
B. convenience.
C. flavor/taste.
D. advertising.


Answer: C) Flavor/Taste